Illustrative case
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A 40-year-old man comes to your office for follow-up of medial left knee pain he\'s had for 3 months that hasn\'t responded to conservative treatment. The pain developed gradually, without a history of trauma. The patient has no signs of degenerative joint disease on x-ray but magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) reveals a tear of the medial meniscus. Should you refer him for meniscectomy?
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